Originally Posted by xnotic
all right so now I'm 1-5. one guy raised 4bb preflop and i called (mistake?). turned out he had KK and flopped a king. There was also a Q on the flop. Should I have taken that as a sign when he bet 11 bbs? I raised him all in thinking he had AK and he went all in.
Well like I always say - the flop changes everything - but...
It would be very standard for you to continue to re-raise preflop, up to and including all in. This was the ideal situation for that. But don't you find it odd that you were not willing to do that PF but more than happy to do it after the flop (which changed everything).
But no matter on that hand - you were destined to be on the short end. In a similar situation I came over the top BIG (20 BB) with AA and got two callers. Figured one of them must have KK or QQ. The flop brought KQ7 and one guy shoves. I folded. He turned over AK. So what can you do? That's poker.
BUT why would you not raise PF when you are virtually unbeatable (if no more cards came) but be willing to stack off after a flop when KQ is in his range (2 pair)? You trying to trap? "Disguise your hand"? By smooth calling you learned nothing more about his hand. You 3 bet and he 4 bets and you start to get a picture of what is going on. But again, probably would not have saved this hand, but there will be more.
Eventually the math will work itself out and you are going to be unbeatable with AA (at least you might think that - until...)