Originally Posted by MercilessKiller
Pre flop I would sometimes fold, sometimes call.. majority of times fold though due to long term EV and other stacks.
Post river I would fold to the $18 bet as thats enough to say "ive got you all beat mwahahah".
then you would be wrong he didnt have him beat, the guy that had him beat didnt act yet. The guy that bet the $18 had 2 pair.
wait a minute this dosent make sense.
ugly, ugly, ugly.
$1/$2 NLHE, $40 buyin. I'm sitting on the button with around $200, EP is a solid TAG with about $70, MP is new and loose with $50, and CO is LAG with $200 or so too, BB is TAG with around $80
I'm dealt 3♣4♣
EP, MP, CO limp in. I call, SB folds (?), BB checks.
BB, EP, MP and CO check, I check behind (slow playing Aces is common on the flop in this game - I've seen a lot of them check/raising)
BB checks, EP bets $4, MP raises to $12. CO folds.
I re-raise to $30, BB folds, EP and MP call.
EP checks, MP is all in for about $40 more.
I curse, scream, fume and fold, EP calls all-in
MP show K♥Q♥
, nut flush and nut straight.
EP shows A♣2♣
, two pair.
I assumed these were same 2 hands but in example in this thread it has MP betting $16 so not sure anymore.
so what do you want to know from FCP? if calling with 34 suited preflop is correct play? because I agree to folding river to the all in, never argued that but the $16 I say call so what you want to know.