$50 NLHE 6-max: $ : $NL 50 shorthanded, TPTK problems

$50 NL HE 6-max: $ : $NL 50 shorthanded, TPTK problems

can you tell me if i did anything wrong or if my analysis is incorrect?

1) NL$50 shorthanded; villain relatively tight - 24 vpip, 16 pfr, 25 call pfr, 6 AF; i don't think he'll go past the flop with air; stacks are deep

PREFLOP: I have AK in co and raise to 1.50, villain on btn calls, blinds fold

FLOP: A9T, pot $3.75
I check as I've been cbetting a lot and wanted to change gears. Villain bets 2.5; I call. One option here was a check raise but I went with "slowplaying" my TPTK

TURN A9T4, pot $8.75
I check again and villain bets 6.50. Now I'm in a little bit of trouble I think. The only hands I beat are AQ and AJ, and he might be tight enough to not bet here even with that. Nonetheless, can I fold to this bet? In the game I call

RIVER A9T4s, pot $21.75
I check again (this time hoping he checks behind) and villain bets 12.50. What would you do?

2)NL30, no reads on villain as he just sat down; villain has $30 and I have $20

PREFLOP: I raise 0.90 on co with AKo, villain 3bets to $3 on btn, blinds fold. Pot is giving me 2:1, so I call thinking that if I hit an Ace or King I figure to have the best hand (is this correct?)

FLOP: 9sA4s, pot $6.45
I check hoping for a cbet. He cbets 3.75 and I raise to 8. He pushes allin 23. I only have $9 left and pot is $27 (doesn't include his extra $6). My initial impulse is to call, is this correct? If I had a bigger stack though I would most likely fold here.

3) NL30, villain is relatively loose with 49% vpip, 18% pfr, 52% call pfr, 36% wtsd; villain has $19, I have $35

PREFLOP: I raise 0.90 on btn with AJo, villain on sb calls, bb calls

FLOP: Jc24c, pot 2.70
Villain checks, bb checks. I bet 2. Villain check raises to 4. I call as I think he can be doing this with a wide range - KJ/QJ, TT-55, flush draw - are the hands I could beat

TURN: Jc24cQ, pot 10.70
Villain lead bets $3, only has $11 behind. I'm not sure if he still can do this (check-raise then lead bet making him pot committed) with KJ or lower pairs. A flush draw might as a blocking bet, but so would sets or QJ as a milking bet. Also, a flush draw might also push in this case. What would you do here? In the game I call.

RIVER: Jc24cQA, pot 16.70
Villain lead bets 4.50, leaving 6.5 behind. I beat QJ now, but I don't think a flush draw or KJ would take this line. What would you do here?

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Comments and criticisms (even harsh!) are very much welcome

One hand per thread for analysis please and an actual hand history would be preferrable. I think you've given enough info, I just can't be bothered to digest it all in this format.

in the first situation i think u shouldnt have slow played on the flop as it is a very drawy board for his range. check raise would be good. and at the end i think its a call as he couldnt hit his draws.
in the second one i would have 4 bet preflop. at the end calling is correct.
third one; in those limits generally a minraise means monster (in this situation sets obviously), flush draw is also very likely. u got beat by any set but u beat flush draw any 2pair and any pair. i dont think kj would play like this.
so imo u beat most of his range and u should call.

I'm only going to answer one hand, the first.

If you've been cbetting a lot, you can't THEN check when you hit. The whole point of cbetting with air AND TPTK is that you balance your range. You also put yourself in this exact spot, where you've completely underrepped your hand and have no idea what his bets mean. Had you cbet (AS YOU'VE BEEN DOING) his reaction to your play would likely be much more in line with his perceived strength of his hand.