A
Always_Raise_U
Enthusiast
Silver Level
$4 NL HE Full Ring: AQs oop with gutshot draw on flop... hero ?
Ok, no exact stat since the HEM trial license is over (I plan on buying it soon however )
Villain (~30/~10)
Stacks:
BB with $4.63
UTG with $2.00
UTG+1 with $1.53
UTG+2 with $6.36
MP1 with $2.31
MP2 with $1.60
MP3 with $6.57
CO with $4.96
BTN with $2.42
SB with $4.55
Site: Party Poker
Dealt to MP3:A♣ Q♣
Sklansky group 2
Preflop:
4 players fold.
Hero raises [$0.16 USD]
CO raises [$0.48 USD]
3 players fold.
Hero calls [$0.32 USD]
Total folds this street: 7
Potsize: $1.02
Flop:
K♦ J♠ 7♣
Hero bets [$0.72 USD]
CO calls [$0.72 USD]
Potsize: $2.46
Turn:
5♣
Hero checks
CO bets [$1.75 USD]
Hero calls [$1.75 USD]
Potsize: $5.96
River:
10♦
Hero is all-in [$3.62 USD]
CO is all-in [$2.01 USD]
Hero shows a straight Ten to Ace:
A♣ Q♣
CO shows a pair of Jacks:
A♠ J♦ Hero wins $1.61 USD from the side pot 1 with a straight, Ten to Ace. Hero wins $9.49 USD from the main pot with a straight, Ten to Ace.
I got AQs in the highjack so it's a no-brainer, I raise. Now, the first times villain reraised me like this, I folded my hands. However it had been three times in a row, he could have been lucky but I decided to call this time since my hand wasn't bad at all.
I flop a gutshot and decide to c-bet (yeah I know I wasn't the aggressor preflop, It was a mistake here)
The turn gives me the NF draw. I called because of implied odds, he had already half of his stack in the pot so there was no chance he'd just fold on the river.
Now my question is, did I play ok and did I use the implied odds theory the right way ?
TIA,
ARU
Ok, no exact stat since the HEM trial license is over (I plan on buying it soon however )
Villain (~30/~10)
Stacks:
BB with $4.63
UTG with $2.00
UTG+1 with $1.53
UTG+2 with $6.36
MP1 with $2.31
MP2 with $1.60
MP3 with $6.57
CO with $4.96
BTN with $2.42
SB with $4.55
Site: Party Poker
Dealt to MP3:A♣ Q♣
Sklansky group 2
Preflop:
4 players fold.
Hero raises [$0.16 USD]
CO raises [$0.48 USD]
3 players fold.
Hero calls [$0.32 USD]
Total folds this street: 7
Potsize: $1.02
Flop:
K♦ J♠ 7♣
Hero bets [$0.72 USD]
CO calls [$0.72 USD]
Potsize: $2.46
Turn:
5♣
Hero checks
CO bets [$1.75 USD]
Hero calls [$1.75 USD]
Potsize: $5.96
River:
10♦
Hero is all-in [$3.62 USD]
CO is all-in [$2.01 USD]
Hero shows a straight Ten to Ace:
A♣ Q♣
CO shows a pair of Jacks:
A♠ J♦ Hero wins $1.61 USD from the side pot 1 with a straight, Ten to Ace. Hero wins $9.49 USD from the main pot with a straight, Ten to Ace.
I got AQs in the highjack so it's a no-brainer, I raise. Now, the first times villain reraised me like this, I folded my hands. However it had been three times in a row, he could have been lucky but I decided to call this time since my hand wasn't bad at all.
I flop a gutshot and decide to c-bet (yeah I know I wasn't the aggressor preflop, It was a mistake here)
The turn gives me the NF draw. I called because of implied odds, he had already half of his stack in the pot so there was no chance he'd just fold on the river.
Now my question is, did I play ok and did I use the implied odds theory the right way ?
TIA,
ARU