$100 NLHE 6-max: JJ in 3-bet pot OOP

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Falcon1803

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Villian Stats (VPIP/PFR/AF): 27/23/3

The vilain is somewhat loose and rather aggressive. Especially likes to 3-bet IP - in 30 minutes 3-bet almost every hand I opened, even whan I opened from UTG. So in this hand I was almost sure he was 3-betting me light.
I had JhJd and opened from MP with 3$ bet, vilain 3-bet from the CO to 9%, I 4-bet to 22$, he called. 100 BB stacks,
Flop comes Ac3h7s, I bet 30$, he calls. Turn 9d. I check, vilain bets all-in 78$.
As he called my bet on the flop and as Axs can comprise the large part of vilain's 3-betting range, I thought that chances are that I'm behind. Of course, given hes aggressive 3 betting stile he might have had medium or even baby pairs in his range. But from combos prospective even the pairs that didn't beat me and might bluff after my turn check (22,44, 55, 66,88,TT - 36 combos) may comprise much less combos than his bluff +value 3 betting ranges that beat me: 30 bluff 3-betting combos (A2s, A4s, A5s, A6s, A8s - 15 combos, A3s, A7s, A9s - 6 combos, 33,77,99 - 9 combos) and 27 combos of his value-3 betting range that beat me (QQ, KK - 12 combos, AA 3 combos, AK-12 combos). I guess the chances that I'm beat are 61% and ahead 39%.
The pot odds were 48 (to call)/ (153,5 (pot)+48 (to call)) = 23,8%
Should I call?
What can I have done differently not to put myself in an akward spot OOP?
 
warturtle7

warturtle7

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If preflop he 3bets almost all the time there is no need to 4bet when you have a good hand. If postflop you get lucky and flop an overpair it is easy to play it, if not just abandon the hand
 
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