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4Aces

4Aces

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Getting AA 4 times out of 7 hands?

It just happened to me and i won 3 of them. :)
 
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jeffred1111

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The same odds as getting AA preflop in a single hand ? Previous hands have no impact on the future hands.
 
ChuckTs

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Consecutive hands do have different odds.

ie Probability of getting aces twice in a row =/= probability of getting aces

getting aces twice in a row = 1/220*1/220 = 1/48400

I can't remember how to do it for weird combos like 4/7 hands, but let's just say it's pretty improbable :)
 
4Aces

4Aces

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The same odds as getting AA preflop in a single hand ? Previous hands have no impact on the future hands.

I said what are the odds of getting AA 4 out of 7 hands. Not the odds of actually getting AA after Ive just had it. Understand?
So basically imagine getting 7 decks, shuffling them all and dealing a hand out of each deck.
What are the odds that 4 of those hands would be AA?
 
smells_flushy

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The same odds as getting AA preflop in a single hand ? Previous hands have no impact on the future hands.

Nope, there is conditional probability involved now

One time, in a SNG, I got AA five times - three of which were consecutive.
 
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jeffred1111

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Yeah, I know it's improbable, but the odds of a single event happening at a single point in time never changes. It's very improbably for a coin to flip heads 30 times in a row (because in the long run = infinity, it will even out) but this doesn't mean that on the 29 flip, the odds of landing it heads were any worse than on the first try.

When you start to think in terms of I got AA 4 times in a row, you also start to think in terms of I never got AA in 2k hands, wich leads to Gambler Fallacy wich leads to believing running hot means an impending downswing, etc.

I prefer not to think of "wow I had AA four times in a row" and more in terms of "I have AA now".
 
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switch0723

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Yeah, I know it's improbable, but the odds of a single event happening at a single point in time never changes. It's very improbably for a coin to flip heads 30 times in a row (because in the long run = infinity, it will even out) but this doesn't mean that on the 29 flip, the odds of landing it heads were any worse than on the first try.

When you start to think in terms of I got AA 4 times in a row, you also start to think in terms of I never got AA in 2k hands, wich leads to Gambler Fallacy wich leads to believing running hot means an impending downswing, etc.

I prefer not to think of "wow I had AA four times in a row" and more in terms of "I have AA now".

Although what you are saying is correct, it isnt what the OP is asking. You are saying that say you flip a heads 3 times in a row. The next time you flip it your are getting 50/50 to hit another head which is correct. But hte OP is asking what are the odds in hitting Xout of X attempts.

Example is what are the odds of flipping 2 heads in a row?

Well hte options are: H H, T T, H,T or T,H

Therfore it is a 25% chance of hitting 2 consecutive heads although using your method jeff there is a 50% of hitting a head after flipping the first.

Do you understand now jeffred?
 
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jeffred1111

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Yah, yah I understand, it's just that I wanted to prevent this thread from falling into Gambler's Fallacy mode and looking at every event as independent is the surest way to do prevent this.
 
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iamthepush

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if i bang my hand with a hammer, what are the chances it will hurt? if i bang my hand with a hammer 5 times in a row what are the chances i'm drunk?
 
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switch0723

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that depends, what hammer and were you drunk before the hitting began, also which beer made you drunk?
 
zachvac

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Running a simulation, got 0 when I did 1 million, trying 100 million now, taking awhile. Basically it's extremely unlikely, but I'll let you know what it gets when the simulation's done.
 
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iamthepush

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that depends, what hammer and were you drunk before the hitting began, also which beer made you drunk?

the one that squeeks, the 2nd beer. (oh no, does that mean i'm a two beer queer?) :icon_sant
 
zachvac

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1.5 x 10^-8 =
.000000015=
.0000015%

That's what the 100 million simulation came up with.
 
DetroitJimmy

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I've had Aces back to back to back once.If I am right the odds of that are 1 in 10,648,000.

If this is correct,then maybe poker isn't my game.I should play the Michigan Lottery:).

Oh yeah,maybe I shouldn't.Come to think about it I lost 2 outa the 3:eek:.
 
Tobmeister

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I think basically what switch said above, the chance of getting aces at an any given time is what ever that is (chance of the first one =4/52 * chance of second one 3/52)

But the confusion lies when you step back and take a sample of hands and ask what the odds are of getting Aces X out of Y samples.

So basically imagine getting 7 decks, shuffling them all and dealing a hand out of each deck.
What are the odds that 4 of those hands would be AA?

In this case then its the chance of getting aces the first time * itself * itself *itself

the above is going on a shady knowledge of odds from a post on cc
if i'm wrong plz tell me :eek:
 
ChuckTs

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In this case then its the chance of getting aces the first time * itself * itself *itself

the above is going on a shady knowledge of odds from a post on cc
if i'm wrong plz tell me :eek:


Well it's a little more complicated than that. You explained how to get the probability of getting aces 4 times in a row, ie 1/220*1/220*1/220*1/220, but getting them 4 times out of 7 requires slightly more complicated stuff that I can't remember how to do unfortunately :/
 
Wild Rivers

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After considerable computation and analysis I have determined that the odds of this happening are greater than those of being eaten alive by a shark while driving through Kansas.:D
 
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