Originally Posted by zachvac
Seen this before, but still glad to see it again, although I'd like to ask on the last hand why Daniel could only raise or fold there. Is anything weaker calling a bet? What's the purpose of that bet? It could easily be a bluff, set, 2-pair, so I would definitely call there, but I don't see what raising accomplishes. And then after the re-raise it was an easy lay-down, especially if he knew he was bluffing. The 3rd spade came on the river, why would he 3-bet with a hand like aces up (as he claimed he had) or a set? Even if he thought Daniel was bluffing he would have just flat called the raise. That wasn't exactly a great lay-down and I would question the river raise except for the fact that it's Daniel Negreanu who probably knows a bit more about poker than me lol. So instead of saying I think it's wrong I'd simply like to know why he's right. Why is that a fold or a raise and not a call?
I don't understand what you are trying to say zach, are you asking why daniel re raised the river? Since isn't it fairly obvious why?? He is re raising to get action from 2-pairs, sets, maybe even top pair if villain thinks he is bluffing, you do know he has a straight right??
Then after the 3bet by villain, it isn't an easy laydown for Daniel, since villain could be 3 betting with a few hands, 2-pairs, sets, bluffs since he has no idea what hand Daniel has.
Edit : Forgot i had this tab open, so was writing this while zach replied above