coin flips

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splashthepot

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If a coin flip is 50/50 (which it actually isn't, look up why), how does it choose a side? If it lands on either side its biased by definition. Should it not land on the edge or something?
If you said it has to land on one or the other then its kind of a paradox, but I don't wanna start talking about that. Just asking a question...Thanks guys
 
atlantafalcons0

atlantafalcons0

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Flipping a coin is 50/50 first of all. Second, in poker sometimes the "coin" does land on its side - split/chopped pot.
 
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splashthepot

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in theory it is 50/50 but read this, it says it can sometimes be 51/49 in practise. And my point was that if its exactly 50/50 its a paradox and can't land on either side.
 
WVHillbilly

WVHillbilly

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No. A single trial outcome is not 50/50. It's either heads or tails. You're thought is ridiculous.
 
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satirist

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A weighted flip? I blame gravity for this conundrum!
 
theRaven68

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practical overwiev
my results in coin flip situation from yesterdays CC freeroll at 888,
AQ lost to 33
AQ won 77
KK lost to AK *not regular coin flip
 
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splashthepot

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WVHillbilly My thought is not ridiculous, you just have no answer to it. Admit it if something has equal change to win as another, how can the universe pick a side?
 
StuffBarnaul

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AhKh vs AdKd
Board: 2h 4d 7h Jd
50/50 )))
 
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Stephenunited

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Ok I'm sorry but this is pretty silly. 50/50 is possible and doesn't mean the coin has to land on its side. All it means is that in 100 flips the expectancy is that each side will win 50 times. That's all it means. Otherwise it would be called 0/0 (by your logic). Hope this helps.
 
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aolguin3

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Ok I'm sorry but this is pretty silly. 50/50 is possible and doesn't mean the coin has to land on its side. All it means is that in 100 flips the expectancy is that each side will win 50 times. That's all it means. Otherwise it would be called 0/0 (by your logic). Hope this helps.

I agree and also in poker depending of your hand and your opponents hand the percentage will vary.
 
PokerFunKid

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It is 50% A and 50% B. There is no other value. Either get on 1 side or the other. The % chance to win just means how much % chance you have to win. It doesnt mean if you flip 10 times A will win 5 times and B will win 5 times. However if you flip a coin a million times it is likely both will win around 500K flips. You're saying same chance 50/50 it has to be a tie? So if A has 60% and B has 40% you say A had to win? Or the coin will balance for 60% on one side and 40% on the other side? It is indeed rediculous, hope your post is a joke and not really something you're stuck with lol.
 
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JVal

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first of all using an actual coin is not 50/50 bc both sides are not equal (indentations and protrusions)

take the american quarter for example

the heads side weighs slightly more so it is ever so slightly more likely to lands tails up

but lets say we have an exactly homogeneous coin with absolutely exact measurements that produce no bias at all and we assume no outside factors affect the flip

then the coin is 50/50

now as to your question the coin doesnt "choose" which side it lands on

the side it lands on is determined by how hard we flip the coin

since this is hard to duplicate exactly that is where there the randomness comes from

note though if you flip a coin billions of times, it will not land on heads exactly 50% of the time

thats due to variance

not sure what you mean by landing on its edge

i suppose if you had a really thick coin it could land on its edge maybe once out of 10000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000 times or so
 
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