This is a discussion on coin flips within the online poker forums, in the General Poker section; If a coin flip is 50/50 (which it actually isn't, look up why), how does it choose a side? If it lands on either side 


#1




coin flips
If a coin flip is 50/50 (which it actually isn't, look up why), how does it choose a side? If it lands on either side its biased by definition. Should it not land on the edge or something?
If you said it has to land on one or the other then its kind of a paradox, but I don't wanna start talking about that. Just asking a question...Thanks guys 
#4




coin flips
in theory it is 50/50 but read this http://codingthewheel.com/archives/t...irproposition ...it says it can sometimes be 51/49 in practise. And my point was that if its exactly 50/50 its a paradox and can't land on either side. Do you get what I mean?

#7




practical overwiev
my results in coin flip situation from yesterdays CC freeroll at 888, AQ lost to 33 AQ won 77 KK lost to AK *not regular coin flip 
#10




re: Poker & coin flips
Ok I'm sorry but this is pretty silly. 50/50 is possible and doesn't mean the coin has to land on its side. All it means is that in 100 flips the expectancy is that each side will win 50 times. That's all it means. Otherwise it would be called 0/0 (by your logic). Hope this helps.

#11




Quote:

#13




It is 50% A and 50% B. There is no other value. Either get on 1 side or the other. The % chance to win just means how much % chance you have to win. It doesnt mean if you flip 10 times A will win 5 times and B will win 5 times. However if you flip a coin a million times it is likely both will win around 500K flips. You're saying same chance 50/50 it has to be a tie? So if A has 60% and B has 40% you say A had to win? Or the coin will balance for 60% on one side and 40% on the other side? It is indeed rediculous, hope your post is a joke and not really something you're stuck with lol.

#14




first of all using an actual coin is not 50/50 bc both sides are not equal (indentations and protrusions)
take the american quarter for example the heads side weighs slightly more so it is ever so slightly more likely to lands tails up but lets say we have an exactly homogeneous coin with absolutely exact measurements that produce no bias at all and we assume no outside factors affect the flip then the coin is 50/50 now as to your question the coin doesnt "choose" which side it lands on the side it lands on is determined by how hard we flip the coin since this is hard to duplicate exactly that is where there the randomness comes from note though if you flip a coin billions of times, it will not land on heads exactly 50% of the time thats due to variance not sure what you mean by landing on its edge i suppose if you had a really thick coin it could land on its edge maybe once out of 10000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000 00000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000 00000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000 00000000000000000000 times or so 