My thought process was since he limped in preflop and called my raise that his hand was not very strong and more than likely a speculative hand such as a suited connector or small pocket pair.
My call on the flop was just to see what he did on the turn, since I did have 2nd pair I could of had the best hand and he could of been attempting to steal.
The turn call was probably the worst part of the hand and I probably should of folded there, but I called thinking if a club or a 9 came on the river I could steal the pot if he put me on a draw and thought it got there on the river. Also, my Jacks could still be the best hand since I really did not think he would limp call an ace from early position preflop.
Now lets get to the river, in all honesty if he bets one to two thirds pot, I probably fold. Instead the villian shoves, why?
Did he think I would call if I was drawing? Probably not.
Did he have pocket 8's or 5's for a set and was hoping I had a strong ace? Quite possible, but I would not think someone would flat the flop and turn with a strong Ace on such a draw heavy board.
Did he bet the flop with nothing and hit runner runner 10's for trips? Unlikely
So why would he shove here? There is just no value in it and his whole line did not make sense from preflop with the limp call. If he does have a set which is now a full house on the river, would he really shove to make it look like a
bluff? Kind of doubt it.