This is a discussion on Question on a Rule, or maybe no rule. within the online poker forums, in the Cash Games section; I attended a local home game last night and an incident occurred that I didn't question because I didn't know the answer (and probably no
I attended a local home game last night and an incident occurred that I didn't question because I didn't know the answer (and probably no one there did) and it is a game of regulars with a couple of new faces on occasion.
to the hand.... Blinds are 1-2, NLHE, 7 players
UTG open raises to 8. Next player folds. MP 3 bets to 22. Hijack, cutoff, and SB fold to BB, which is me. I look down at AQs and 4 bet to 50.
UTG calls 55 pretty quickly. MP snap announces all-in, about 225. He then gets up, leaves the table and walks about 20 feet away and starts chatting (by the bar) with a couple of the other players who folded earlier.
I'm tanking and then it hits me, he may have forfeited his hand by leaving the table before action is determined. I can't make a read on him if he's not at the table. I decide to fold and UTG calls him with a shorter stack and with a KJ. MP turns over QQ. The flop is AK3, turn 7, river 9.
UTG wins the pot with KK over QQ.
I was upset a bit that I would have won the hand with a hero call but what's really irking me is him leaving the table early and not coming back to it until I folded..... my question is did he abandon his hand and should the dealer have mucked him? Anyone know the rule on this?
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He has no action left, he is all-in. He now is just waiting to see if he gets called. I don't believe he has forfeited his hand (my opinion) just by getting up. It is his responsibility to protect his hand from being mucked, which would be hard to do from the bar, but since its a "home" game, or if he had a card protector, he's probably safe.
I'm assuming if you would not of won the hand then you would not of been upset. I don't think he did anything wrong, but again just my opinion.