Mr Sandbag
Legend
Silver Level
Time and time again I'll read about why a poker player should never open-limp with any hand. Why?
Is it because opponents will know you don't have the top end of your range, like I've heard so many times? If so, how does limping differ from open-limping? If someone open-limps for $2 and you follow suit, an opponent can just as easily conclude that you don't have a premium here either.
I'm not saying it's a habit of mine to open-limp, but I can't say that I never do it. I may open-limp with a small pair in hopes of getting to a flop cheaply. If someone does raise, I often have the correct odds to set mine. If I open-raise with a small pair and someone 3-bets, it's unlikely I'll have the odds to set mine and will be playing the hand OOP (most of the time).
Thoughts?
Is it because opponents will know you don't have the top end of your range, like I've heard so many times? If so, how does limping differ from open-limping? If someone open-limps for $2 and you follow suit, an opponent can just as easily conclude that you don't have a premium here either.
I'm not saying it's a habit of mine to open-limp, but I can't say that I never do it. I may open-limp with a small pair in hopes of getting to a flop cheaply. If someone does raise, I often have the correct odds to set mine. If I open-raise with a small pair and someone 3-bets, it's unlikely I'll have the odds to set mine and will be playing the hand OOP (most of the time).
Thoughts?