Odds vs. Implied Odds
Sample situation that I see often and I question the correct way to go ahead with the hand. I do not understand the concepts of implied odds
Effective stk sizes are 10K for this sample situation and we are 9 handed.
Blinds 200/100 ante 50 (pot size 750)
Exactly what cards don't really matter here...
Seats 1-5 fold
Seat 6 raises to 600
Seats 7&8 fold
Seat 9 (BB) calls
Current pot size now - 1750
So let's say I flop an outside straight draw
If the orginal raiser leads out on the flop I would not normally be getting the correct price to call to see 1 more cards.
I'm holding 9h8h
Villains holding AA (we don't know this)
Flop hits 76Q rainbow - I know have an outside straight draw and the pot size is 1750.
If the villain leads out with his AA (which he most likely would) I would only be able to call a bet of about 360 to see the turn. It isn't likely he will be 360 or less here.
I think this is where implied odds come in and I need to understand it more.
The 4/2 rule is misued far too often IMO. I'm 32% to make my hand if I do the math that I'm going to see 2 more cards than I can call a bet as large as 800, but I'm not guaranteed to see 2 more cards only 1.
What is the CORRECT thing to do? I would think you'd have to fold most draws unless implied odds explain something I don't understand already.