Just had a random thought in my class today, variance is an all encompassing concept that applies to pretty much everything from seat draw to opponents to

hands dealt to flops to which part of your opponents range you run into and our opponents specific leaks relative to the population etc etc etc.

now onto EV v winnings, its fairly easy to show that EV is a strictly better measure of performance than amount won. what i got thinking about was the distribution of winnings around EV.

obviously in all poker samples EV = Expected (winnings) for any given number of trials but I'm more interested in the distribution around that.

if we used a coin flip as an example, where we have 50% equity its fairly intuitive that we would have a normal distribution with equal volatility both above and below the EV.

its not immediately obvious to me as to how winnings would distributed if we were to run a hand where we have 80% equity and whether the sample, while still having the same mean, would me skedastic or not.

thoughts?