Originally Posted by JOEBOB69
Pretty good sound advice.What if villain on the button is 22/18/4 steal 35%-cbet 75%-turn bet 50%(villain 3xpre) (we call)we have 10sJs in the SB.Flop comes Kh9c6h.How would we play this.Just C\F,float,C\R,,donk?
Depends on villain. I may fold pf, may c/r flop, may donk it, etc. Depends on his pf range, his cbetting and barreling frequencies, how sticky he is postflop (with something like 9T or TT), etc. With your reads I think raising flop is probably my standard.
Originally Posted by acky100
Thanks Chuck, thats all logical and i can see where my thinking was backwards!
Btw, when you say your c-bet gets raised on Axx dry board by a standard taggy reg, when you say you make a play almost always do you mean you 3bet him on the flop a lot of the time?
Now you've pointed it out on dry flops like that, all they are really repping is sets, would a min raise do the job or are we following through with our thought that villain is FOS and raising big and calling our stack off if we have to? (providing we have a hand)
Say we have AK and the flop is A92r. If villain is "FOS", ie has a range full of bluffs and very few nut hands (sets only, based on our assumption), then what would be the purpose of reraising?
What I meant by 'making a play': We raise JTo in CO, get called by 23/19 BB. He checks A92r, we cbet 4bb into 6.5 pot, he raises to 12. I often either repop to like ~26-30bb, or float.