C
CaptainKout
Rock Star
Silver Level
I'm using my current downswing to re-examine my game. 3 betting is something I've been doing largely without thought. Just raising up good hands because I want to enter the pot with a raise. So what exactly should I be considering?
This is my thought.
Obviously I need to consider the villain's range and what odds I'm setting by raising. If I bet pot sized I'm setting my odds as a little worse than one to one(amount to call plus pot-sized of raise). The villains calling odds are 2 to one. So they can profitably call with the top 2/3 of their range, and in practice probably less if they're oop. So in order to 3bet profitably do I want to be ahead of about half their range(my odds) or just 2/3 of their range(their calling odds)?
So against someone with 20% pfr in blank position opens to 3bb, should I be raising with the top 10% of hands, 13%, much lower, or something completely different? Then make some adjustments on how the hand plays against their calling range. So hands like A9s while in the top 10% of hands probably doesn't play well if they'll call with all the stronger aces. If for example, he calls a 3bet with all his pfr hands(20% range) then what should I be raising with?
What if instead of raising pot sized I raise less, does the same math apply except with different ranges based on the different odds?
With the same thought process, to call behind I only would need to be ahead of less than half his range since the odds include the money from the blinds.
When it comes to 3betting light, am I just taking advantage of how infrequently he'll call or 4bet below optimal. So if he's calling/4betting only 1/10 of his pfr range, then I'm justified in 3 betting light because essentially I'm setting odds that are good enough for him to call but he isn't accepting the odds as often as he should. Is this right?
This is my thought.
Obviously I need to consider the villain's range and what odds I'm setting by raising. If I bet pot sized I'm setting my odds as a little worse than one to one(amount to call plus pot-sized of raise). The villains calling odds are 2 to one. So they can profitably call with the top 2/3 of their range, and in practice probably less if they're oop. So in order to 3bet profitably do I want to be ahead of about half their range(my odds) or just 2/3 of their range(their calling odds)?
So against someone with 20% pfr in blank position opens to 3bb, should I be raising with the top 10% of hands, 13%, much lower, or something completely different? Then make some adjustments on how the hand plays against their calling range. So hands like A9s while in the top 10% of hands probably doesn't play well if they'll call with all the stronger aces. If for example, he calls a 3bet with all his pfr hands(20% range) then what should I be raising with?
What if instead of raising pot sized I raise less, does the same math apply except with different ranges based on the different odds?
With the same thought process, to call behind I only would need to be ahead of less than half his range since the odds include the money from the blinds.
When it comes to 3betting light, am I just taking advantage of how infrequently he'll call or 4bet below optimal. So if he's calling/4betting only 1/10 of his pfr range, then I'm justified in 3 betting light because essentially I'm setting odds that are good enough for him to call but he isn't accepting the odds as often as he should. Is this right?