Originally Posted by SubT33
Why isn't pre-flop 8:1 (or slightly better) pot odds good enough?
It is, but you rarely will see 8:1 pot odds preflop, unless you're in the small blind with some limpers, or are in a large multi-way pot.
What implied odds refers to is the size of your opponents stack, and how likely you are to get paid off, and not so much the amount of $ in the pot.
For example, if you're in a tournament, and the blinds are 100/50. Your opponent who has 1300 chips raises to 300. Now obviously, if you call his 300, your opponent won't have enough in his stack to pay you off very much. Thus, when you miss, you'll lose the 300 raise you put in to see the flop. When you hit, you'll only win a maximum of 1000 more chips. This 1000 chip win doesn't pay you off sufficiently for the times when you lose 300 chips. Thus you do not have implied odds.