Is this right?

#1 23rd May 2010, 7:45 PM

For example, I had pocket queens, and it flopped 7s 8s 9h, if the guy has 9s 10s, is he winning the hand? because I counted the outs and he has a lot of, is it possible that he is beating me even if I have the better game at the moment?

#2 23rd May 2010, 7:57 PM

That is a monster drawing hand.

22 outs to beating your hand if I'm correct. 21 if one of your queens was a spade.

#3 23rd May 2010, 7:58 PM

This is what your percentages look like.

Hope this helps!

#4 23rd May 2010, 9:02 PM

You're ~ 80/20 ahead preflop.
On the flop if one of your Q's is Qs... you're 61/38 dog.

Here's a simple odds calc. site you can use, not only for NLHE but for other games as well.

thebackhander.com

#5 23rd May 2010, 11:07 PM

well thanks, I only use that number of outs x4 after flop and x2 after turn, and if the guy had 22 outs so he had like more than 50% of winning with a losing hand, I wasnt understanding how could this be true, but thank you a lot

#6 23rd May 2010, 11:28 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by godoy

For example, I had pocket queens, and it flopped 7s 8s 9h, if the guy has 9s 10s, is he winning the hand? because I counted the outs and he has a lot of, is it possible that he is beating me even if I have the better game at the moment?

Yes he will win it in 60% probability. You can still win it in 40%. But if thats the case, if he checks, you go on raising. If he raises but not that big bet, call it.

#7 24th May 2010, 1:01 AM

10 x 3
9 x 2
J x 4
6 x 4
7 spades. 9 - 2. The J and the 6(already included in the OESD)

20 outs, just to be clear. 19 if you have the Q of spades.

#8 24th May 2010, 5:29 PM

A simplified method to calculate the odds of him winning this hand is to use the "2 - 4 " rule.
On the flop, take the number of outs & multiply by 4.... on the turn by 2. If you have more than 9outs the calculation will be a bit off (a bit on the high side). An easy way to make it more accurate....
Number of outs x 4 - (# of outs - 9)

In this if he has 20outs
4 x 19 - (19- 9) = 76 - 10 = ~66%

#9 25th May 2010, 3:10 AM

Quote:

Originally Posted by Poker Orifice

A simplified method to calculate the odds of him winning this hand is to use the "2 - 4 " rule.
On the flop, take the number of outs & multiply by 4.... on the turn by 2. If you have more than 9outs the calculation will be a bit off (a bit on the high side). An easy way to make it more accurate....
Number of outs x 4 - (# of outs - 9)

In this if he has 20outs
4 x 19 - (19- 9) = 76 - 10 = ~66%

thank you, that was my doubt, I thought he had like 80% of winning, but that explains a lot
=)

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