payouts

Hi everyone.
I've been playing poker online for a while now but there is still something that baffles me. When a poker round ends why does a lower hand get a win as well as the higher hand, for instance, one hand had a pair of aces, and the other had two pairs, 2's and 3's. How does this work? i assumed it is the highest hand that gets the win.

I can only assume that there was a side-pot that the player with 2 pair was not entitled to win.

Example:

Player1: 1000 chips
Player2: 3000 chips
Player3: 4000 chips

Player1: 2♥ 3♥
Player2: A♦ A♠
Player3: K♣ K♥

Player1 goes all-in for 1000, Player2 goes all-in for 3000, Player3 calls.

So we have 2 pots, 3000 chips that Player1 can win and 4000 chips that only Player2 or Player3 can win.

So if the board gives player1 2pair and the AA or KK don't improve, the pot is awarded accordingly.

There was either a side pot, or with the people involved: If one person flopped 2 pair, then the board paired higher than that second pair in your hole, it counterfeits that your lower pair. Ex. Your hand is A9, flop is A 9 Q, then then turn is a Q, you now have aces and queens with a 9 kicker, which counterfeits your lowest pair. Now you still may have the best hand but let's say your opponent had AJ, he now has Aces and queens with a jack kicker and will beat you. But what your asking happens when the board lays down a card that is higher than both of your kickers. Let's say that a king fell on the river, then you would both win, because you play the board as your kicker then, in this situation, you would both have aces and queens, with a king kicker: split pot.

Thanks very much for the replys. There are two sets of chips on the table but they both merge at the end of each bidding round, would they be the pots you are reffering to?

Do you happen to have the specific hand history you are asking about?

To make the explanation another way: Say after the blinds are posted you have 1 dollar left and go all in, and two players with big stacks also go all in. You can't win more than 1 dollar from each of them now because 1 dollar is your whole stack. So if you have the best hand you will win two dollars, plus the blinds, and those chips will go over to you, but the next best hand will win the rest of the pot from the worst hand, and those chips will move over to him. In this case your chips would be in the "side pot", because you did not have enough to complete the wager with the other two players...

Hi again,
I've just been watching a game on the internet and 2 hands won.

player 1 had q5 clubs and went all in with 256
player 2 had q5 spades and called the bet

thate table cards were Q A 6 J 8

both players won but player 2 won more.

hope this helps explain what i mean.

thanks again for the help

if this was in a tournament and there is an uneven amount of chips in the pot for a split pot, the player to the left of the button would get 1 more chip than the other player (this also happens in casino games as well)

Can you provide more details please.
How much more did player 2 win?

The rules to hold em are quite simple.
If there are side pots thats one thing.
If there are no side pots thats another.

I would have to guess that one of the players bet more than the other person had, so that way they both split the pot, but the person that bet more got their bet returned to them. Ick horrible grammar.

Omaha h/l :P?

mostly cause a lot of lower hands have a good chance against bigget hands AK vs 56 is 60% to 40% so 56 should win almost have the time... if theres two or three junk hands in the pot you lose more than 40% by the river... know how different hands match up against eachother and know how Big hands like AA match up against two or 3 callers