Math Question

#1 22nd January 2012, 2:58 AM

Can someone answer this? Floping one pair or better holding lets say A,K. 44/50 * 43/49 * 42/48 = 79464/117600 = 67.6%. 100 - 67.6% = 32.4%. Now, why doesnt this work? 1 out of 3 As or 3 Ks hits on the first card and then it doesnt matter about the remaing two. 6/50 * 49/49 * 48/48 = 14112/117600 = 36%. I know this is wrong but I need to know why. Also, whenever calculating odds, what determins wether you should calculate the odds of it not happening and then subtracting from 1. In otherwords is there some kind of rule as when its best to do this. Thanks in advance and I hope I didnt make this to confusing.

#2 22nd January 2012, 4:57 PM

When the first card pairs one in your hand, the odds of one pair or better become 100% since it has already happened.

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