implied odds question

I have a general question about implied odds in small ball style

so in theory it is alright to call with possibly an underdog hand vs a tight opponent if the potential payoff is big and the pot odds are right..say 2.5 to 1 or better ...?



is this right or did i miss something?

thanks

I was wondering about this too. I actually almost always call with a low pocket pair even if (actually, especially if) I feel like they may have kings or aces (preflop) because of implied odds since I can probably take all their chips a little less than one in eight times. I don't really like relying on implied odds after the flop though because it gets you in trouble so much. I'm curious as to what other people think

Implied odds are the additional amount you can win that isn't already in the middle.

So a classic example of an implied odds play is small pocket pairs. One might call a preflop raise from a very tight player with 22 for instance becuase of the implied odds if the stacks are deep enough to justify the play.

example

.01/.02 Full Ring NLHE Cash game

hero - 5.00
villina - 4.50

Villian is super tight will only raise with AA, or KK. But is willing to go broke with them always.

Villian Raises to .20 and here has pocket 22. do you call, fold, or raise?

Here you call, you are risking .20 to possibly win 4.50 for an invest of 21.5/1 those are great odds. You wouldn't raise because you would reduce your odds and could possibly be raised off your hand.

Now same as above but this time the villian raises to 1.00 instead of .2, here you fold. The implied odds being offered to you don't justify your play.

The rule of thumb I see often and use myself if 12/1 odds to set mine. This will help to ensure you are set mining correctly.

I hope that helps and I didn't completely miss the point of your question.

Yes..that makes sense when you look @ it like that....
It just doesnt seem right somehow to call with what you think is a weaker hand on the chance that you can win more with less .If you can make your hand or the Villan doesnt make theirs..
Thanks

In No limit hold'em theory and practice, Sklansky calls it trading mistakes. You are making a rather minor mistake by calling preflop with a worse hand while in the hopes that you opponent will make a much larger mistake. Counter intiative but highly profitable.

question here, so do you only use implied odds preflop?

I tend to use it after the flop as well... The more rounds of betting you go through, the better read you can get on your opponents' hand. For instance, if your opponent holds AsKs, and you hold KhQh, and the board reads Ah,Kc,5h... I would use implied odds when calculating whether or not to call with your flush draw. I am not saying ths is 100% correct to do all the time, but I was trying to give you an example where using implied odds after the flop might be profitable for you.

sweeet..makes alot more sense with diffrent perspectives..thanks every1
Good luck @ the tables

I have also a difficulty with implied odds. Now it is more clear! Thanks for asking HalifaxLeafs and thanks for the responses everybody

No problem... I'm glad that I came across this website. I've found a ton of helpful information in these forums, and it's great to see what people of all different skill levels have to say.