| This is a discussion on Badugi Probabilities within the online poker forums, in the Learning Poker section; Is this correct ? Probability of being dealt any badugi (R1a R2b R3c R4d) 4/52 * 3/51 * 2/50 * 1/49 If that is correct, ... |
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#1
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Badugi Probabilities
Is this correct ?
Probability of being dealt any badugi (R1a R2b R3c R4d) 4/52 * 3/51 * 2/50 * 1/49 If that is correct, how would you calculate the probability for a particular hand? E.g. Aa 2b 3c 4d |
| Play Texas Hold'em Online Poker | Badugi Probabilities | |
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#2
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Odds of being dealt a nut badugi would be ((4 *4)/52) x ((3*3)/51) x ((2*2)/50) x (1/49). Oh, I guess you mean any badugi, all the way up to K? That would be ((12*3)/51) x ((11*2)/50) x (10/50)
...your numbers are the odds of an exact hand, suit matching the value. Last edited by D'wilius : 14th October 2009 at 11:14 PM. |
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#4
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Dealt Badugi Probability Formula
On the http://wiki.lowballgurus.com/article..._Probabilities page
We can calculate the number of badugis with high card N as ((N-1) choose 3) * 4! (That is, we must choose 1 card of rank N, 3 different ranks from the remaining N-1 ranks, and they may have any assignment of four different suits.) As an almost "math illiterate", that's a pretty slick forumula ! I can understand the (N-1) choose 3), especially since it is "spelled out" in english , but I don't get the 4 factorial for the suits.Can anyone explain why / how the 4 factorial relates to the suits ? Pretend you are talking to a 6 year old ![]() |
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#5
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The 4! comes from the 4 suits, its correct.
The first card can be chosen from 4 suits, the 2:nd from 3 suits, the 3:rd from 2, and the last from just one suit. The multiply theroem then gives us 4x3x2x1=4! The formula calculates the # of badugi hands exactly n high. If you want to calculate the total # of badugi hands that are n high or better, then the formula would be: (n choose 4)4! Last edited by only_bridge : 16th October 2009 at 1:39 AM. |
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#6
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re: Badugi Probabilities poker
If drawing 2 cards to an 8 or bettter, starting with two cards <=8.
So draw 1: 12 outs from remaining 48 cards = 33 % Draw 2 : 10 outs from 46 cards = 27% Draw 3: 8 outs from 44 cards = 22% How do you calculate the total percentage for all three draws combined? I.e Calculate the odds of hitting on three draws? You can't just add those percentages can you ? ... giving 82% of hitting ? Mike |
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#7
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Quote:
Then the chance of hitting would be: 5/48+33/48*5/47+33/48*32/48*5/46 |
