Translation

#1 14th September 2008, 3:40 PM

I'm reading a strategy book and I'm not quite sure what the author is getting at. I know this book has a couple of typos in it. I hope someone can enlighten me.

The quote is, "First you have to flop a set, (7.9:1 against when you hold a pair in your hand)

Is he saying my odds on getting the set is 7.91 to 1?

#2 14th September 2008, 4:54 PM

That's how I would read it. In SuperSytem, Mike Caro says the odds are 7.51 - 1. This doesn't seem right to me (seems like it would be more like 18-1 against), but there are 3 cards on the flop, which might account for the discrepancy.

#3 14th September 2008, 5:02 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by dj11

That's how I would read it. In SuperSytem, Mike Caro says the odds are 7.51 - 1. This doesn't seem right to me (seems like it would be more like 18-1 against), but there are 3 cards on the flop, which might account for the discrepancy.

This is an Omaha book. I don't know if that makes a difference.

#4 14th September 2008, 5:03 PM

depends on what game you're playing you're an omaha freak but in holdem the odds of hitting your set are supposed to be about 1 in 8 or close.

#5 15th September 2008, 4:42 AM

Being the math geek that I am, I'll show the chances of hitting a set for texas and omaha (slightly different). This assumes you have exactly 2 of the card in your omaha hand.

Hold'em: 1 - (48/50)*(47/49)*(46/48) = 11.76% chance of flopping a set
1 / 0.1176 = 8.51
7.51 : 1 against odds of flopping a set.

Omaha : 1 - (46/48)*(45/47)*(44/46) = 12.23% chance of flopping a set
1 / 0.1223 = 8.17
7.17 : 1 against odds of flopping a set.

Again, the omaha example used assumes that the other two cards are NOT the same rank as the pair, in which case the odds would be dramatically worse for flopping a set. The odds are slightly better in omaha because you have reduced the number of cards that will NOT make your set (the other 2 cards in your hand).

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