Need explanation

#1 14th November 2008, 6:50 PM

Was watching WSOP last night on TV and it was the final table. One of the hands that was been held was pocket 6's. the other hand was pocket rockets kA. Now the flop comes: 9 7 A. The turn comes: 6. The river comes: A. now the guy with KA wins since he has a set of aces. Correct/

Now please tell me why on Fulltilt when that happened to me and I was the one with a set of aces, I lost. and the only reason I can see is that the other guy had pocket 6's...

That to me makes no sence since I had the better hand.

Please comment.

#2 14th November 2008, 6:54 PM

The guy with the pocket 6s actually made a full house, using the best 5 cards possible for his hand it would have been 666AA = Full house. Where as the person with AK his best 5 card hand is AAA97 = A set. So really you are just reading the hand wrongly, A fullhouse always beats a set in my book.

#3 14th November 2008, 6:54 PM

The other player makes a full house when the 6 comes on the river.

Until then he only had 2 pairs Aces & 6s against the set of Aces.

#4 14th November 2008, 6:56 PM

Pocket 66 would make a fullhouse to Trip Kings and the fullhouse would win.

#5 14th November 2008, 6:58 PM

pocket rockets=AA bigslick=AK. The three aces make trips not a set. The sixes make a set and therefore a fullhouse when the board pairs.

#6 14th November 2008, 7:34 PM

i read this post and as soon as i finish reading it iam almost completely sure someones gonna give this guy/girl a complete ass reaming.... just sounds like a silly silly ?

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