Am I working this out right? Help me out lol

Ok odds of being dealt a pocket pair 19/1, Odds of a pair hitting a set on the flop 8/1 yes? So that should mean somebody should be making a set once every 152 hands yes? Now take into account the amount of times people fold low pairs pre-flop so dont actually see a flop, or the amount of times people raise with pairs and also dont see a flop because everybody folds, actually seeing somebody making a set off the flop should be much higher than once every 152 hands.

But i will use the figure of 152 for my next calculation lol! Right if my stats show im currently playing 15% of my starting hands that would mean that would equate to me playing 23 out of every 152 hands.

So am i right in saying the odds of me being up against a set after the flop whenever i play a hand would....

(152/23) x 152


Which is 1 in 1004

If so, could it be possible for any amount of variance to show a figure as low as in 1 in 50?

Actually scrap that lol, cant be right!