This might sound like some stupid question but here goes.

For example the board plays differently for three certain hands. For example, if there is a fullhouse on the board.

eg: a,a,a,k,k

Both hold any other cards so the pot is split, even if one held a K the pot is still split as it's aces over kings on the board.

With a flush on a board even with the Ace out there.

eg. 5,8,k,a,2 (spades)

If one of the players holds any of the same suited cards(spades in this case) they win the pot if the other hasn't got one. Why is this the case? I thought it was best hand with 5 cards which in this case is the board and both have Ace high spade..

The same applies to if both have a flush draw and there is an Ace high on the board..

eg: 4,6,8,a,10 (spades)

Player one shows: 5c,Js
Player two shows: 6c,Qs

Now obviously if there are only 3 spades out there or even four and one has the higher spade in the hand they win, however the spade is out there so why does it determine who has the higher in their hand because at the end of the day both have the Ace high Spade..which again brings us back to the fullhouse example. It's played differently, doesn't make sense.


The third example is if both have two pair, why is it sometimes a kicker comes in place yet at other times, no it doesn't come into play??

The same applies with kicker cards...even when one is on the board which could be used instead of the other card in your hand.

eg:Both hold a Ace card and an Ace flops. At showdown ones kicker is a Jack and the other players kicker is a queen. Yet on the board, a King came out on the turn..Why isn't it split pot they both have a King high kicker..



The reasons I ask, is sometimes it comes into place and other times it doesn't. It's the same as when the board comes out with a straight, its just instant split pot, yet if one holds a higher card, why doesn't it come into play?

I went all-in with Aces against QQ and the board was just 3,4,5,6,7 for example so the pot is split. Why is this the case when I hold the HIGH ace card? I know you will say because it's a straight and the best 5 cards win which is correct, the straight but as my examples show above, it all contradicts itself with different hands I'm just curious if someone can answer them..

I just re-read what I typed and can't put it into better context so I hope you know what I'm getting at.

It makes sense the way it is done because it is the best 5 card hand.

In your full house example, the absolute best 5 card hand that can be made is
AAAKK (assuming one player does not have an A or KK). Therefore the absolute best hand is on the board.

However, with the flush, the best hand may not be on the board. While the hand is still defined as the "Ace high flush", it is really the "Ace high flush with the K + 8 + 5 + X kicker. So if one player has a spade while the other only has the board, he will automatically win as his spade must be higher than the 2 giving him the best 5 card hand.

In your situation, the best hand is defined by the straight on the board: 34567
Your ace 'kicker' would be a 6th card and is irrelevant. Unless you held an 8, you both split because the best hand is the board.

OK, so your post is a little confusing but I'll try my best to answer. Say for example the board is as you said 4 6 8 A T all spades. If one player has Js and another has Qs the best 5 they have is AQT86 and AJT86 so you can see the former is better. If one of them held the 3 and the other the 2, then they would both have AT864 as the best 5 cards on board.

In your first example, yes they both have A high flushes, but it's not just A high, it then goes to the 2nd 3rd 4th or 5th spade if it comes into play, if the board is 58KA2 all spades and I hold the 3 of spades but my opponent has none then my AK853 beats his AK852.

In your third example, I'm assuming you're saying if AJ v AQ and the board is AKXXX lets say AK234, then the hands are AAKQ4 v AAKJ4 so you can see the Q comes into play. If they had A3 v A4 and the board was AKT67 then they both have AAKT7 so the 3 and 4 don't come into play.

I hope this helps.

yea i agree with ^^ not only does the hand as a whole matter, but in terms of a tie, value is the decider. just like whoever has the higher straight wins, whoever has the higher flush wins. AT864 versus AK864. they both have the same highest value flush, but the winner is the person with the highest flush throughout all 5 cards.

All the replys above are correct, when they both have a K kicker on the board then you have a second kicker, or even a third kicker.

Easy way to think of it is that you make the best 5 card hand from the 7 cards available to each player, I.E 5 cards on the board and 2 hole cards = 7 cards total, then you make the best 5 card hand from those 7 cards.

I'm about to dash out the door so this is a quick post as a clarification.

I gave this a quick read and didn't see where anyone drew the distinction between playing the community cards in Holdem vs. playing them in Omaha. What I quickly read above applies to Holdem but not Omaha.

If I misread the above, as has been known to happen, I apologize.

Out of time. Gotta go.

No, obviously applies to Holdem only, where, you need not play a single card in your hand, much less 2.

Originally Posted by Divebitch

No, obviously applies to Holdem only, where, you need not play a single card in your hand, much less 2.

It's obvious to us; however, ramdeebam's question is one that an new player would ask. Such a player might not suspect that community cards aren't always played the same way. The question, as written, was not Holdem-specific (or, if it was, I missed it).

How often is there a posting by someone who doesn't understand why the lost a hand in Omaha? I think there was a new one a couple of days back.

Ok, so to clarify, in Omaha, the strict rule is 2 from your hand and 3 on board. If there are 4 clubs on board and you have one club- The Ace, sadly, you don't have the nuts. Sucks, right?

Originally Posted by JohnBoyWWFC

Ok, so to clarify, in Omaha, the strict rule is 2 from your hand and 3 on board. If there are 4 clubs on board and you have one club- The Ace, sadly, you don't have the nuts. Sucks, right?

It sucks only at the end of the hand when the pot is pushed to another player due to a brain fade on our part.

In NLH. maybe I can sum it up like this: The best 5 cards win (period). It can be with one of your cards and 4 community cards, two of your cads and 3 of the community cards or all five of the community cards.

Once the five cards have been figured out then your and the other player's cards are irrelevant.

This is assuming that you understand the concept of the "best 5 cards". It has been explained in detail in the above posts.

When I first started playing and a hand came up that I lost and thought I had won, I wondered about this as well until I got some help by asking questions etc and then I finally figured it out.

One case in point. I was heads up and both of us had the same 2 pairs. I lost because the other player had the higher 5th card. I did not understand this (at the time) and went ballistic.I now understand about the best (5th) card.

Hope this helps.

Yep, simply the top 5 cards win the hand

To make an my reply short and sweet, it's the best five cards on the board and in your hand.