An odds question

#1 8th April 2005, 12:53 AM

Im really bad at math, so my question might seem really stupid but I have a hard time grasping numbers and ratios and such.

So, if you have 15 outs of 45 unseen cards, is that a 2-1 or 3-1 chance of hitting? And yes I know 45/15 is 3. But 2-1 would be a 1 in 3 chance of hitting and a 3-1 would be a 1 in 4 chance of hitting. Am I correct on this or not? If this is confusing let me know and ill try to simplify what im saying. Thanks.

#2 8th April 2005, 3:20 AM

15 out of 45 would be a 1:3 ratio. Math can be a nasty thing sometimes, I use it alot when I am playing. 6 out of 48 would be 1:8, 9 out of 36 would be 1:4 and so on. Just divide the bigger number by the smaller number to get your 1 to ? ratio.

#3 8th April 2005, 3:23 AM

and thats my chance of hitting.. so if im 3-1 to hit my hand am i also a 3-1 dog?

#4 12th April 2005, 1:51 AM

a not complete accurate way but not exact (within a %2 average) is to figure your outs and then double them. Its just a quick way to do it when at a table or in some game. Its better probally to be more exact but in a quick situtation there is that.

#5 13th April 2005, 12:37 AM

yeah i knew that JDE, thanks. i was just tryin to figure it out the odds expressed as ratios so i can figure pot odds and all that good stuff. but i have it figured out now. i was confused on one little thing.

#6 14th April 2005, 1:49 PM

well that depends, based on that number, u havent seen the turn yet so the odds would be slightly less thhan 2 to 1

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