C-bet % question

This is a discussion on C-bet % question within the online poker forums, in the Cash Games section; I am hearing a lot of players say that when they cbet 1/2 pot with air, it only has to work 33% of the time ...
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  #1
6th June 2009, 6:15 PM
Stu_Ungar
 
Game: holdem
C-bet % question

I am hearing a lot of players say that when they cbet 1/2 pot with air, it only has to work 33% of the time to show a profit.

Why is this?

When I look at the situation I think the 1/2 pot c bet has to work more than 50% of the time to show a profit.


If the pot were 100 and I c-bet 50, I see it as I am paying 50 to win 100. If it works I get $100 (2x50) and if it fails, I lose 50.

So where does the 33% come from?
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  #2
6th June 2009, 6:30 PM
beefcake413
 
Online Poker at: Bodog
Game: Holdem
My only guess would be that what their calculating as odds is that every time the C-bet 1/2 the pot they win doing so 1 out of every 3 times they attempt this move?
  #3
6th June 2009, 6:38 PM
Stu_Ungar
 
Game: holdem
Quote:
Originally Posted by beefcake413
My only guess would be that what their calculating as odds is that every time the C-bet 1/2 the pot they win doing so 1 out of every 3 times they attempt this move?

But their words are 'this only needs to work 33% of the time to show a profit'
  #4
6th June 2009, 6:40 PM
dj11
 
Online Poker at: PSFTUBPOSB&O
Game: Horse.
If isolated, the 1/3 figure makes the move break even, but the cbet, used judiciously, will succeed more often than 1/3 of the time (and thus profitable). Used cavalierly, the cbet will not meet the break even criteria, as opponents have a way of noticing things like this, and will fight back. Of critical importance here is the ability to give up on a hand when faced with resistance.

Another factor, the occasional cbet against multiple villains (generally not recommended), improves the profitability.
  #5
6th June 2009, 6:41 PM
Snowmobiler
 
Poker at: FT,Bodog
Game: Holdem
re: C-bet % question poker

maybe they shoulda said 34% to show a profit




Snow
  #6
6th June 2009, 6:44 PM
Stu_Ungar
 
Game: holdem
I'm not quibbling if a profit is shown at 33 or 34% I'm asking why its not at 50%
  #7
6th June 2009, 7:40 PM
F Paulsson
 
Because you bet $1 to win $2.

If you bet the pot, THEN it needs to work half the time, because then you risk $2 to win $2. Losing $2 half the time and winning $2 half the time makes you break even.
  #8
6th June 2009, 7:41 PM
zachvac
 
Online Poker at: Pokerstars
Game: NL Hold 'em
Use your example, 1 in 3 times it works:

1. doesn't work -50
2. doesn't work -50-50=-100
3. does work -100+100 = 0

33% means you get 1:2 on your steal. If you bet pot it has to work 50% of the time assuming absolutely no equity.
  #9
6th June 2009, 9:17 PM
Stu_Ungar
 
Game: holdem
Thanks guys, that makes perfect sense.

When I look at ratios I sometimes forget its a ratio and instead think its a fraction.
  #10
6th June 2009, 9:26 PM
dj11
 
Online Poker at: PSFTUBPOSB&O
Game: Horse.
re: C-bet % question poker

If any doubt try this

you got 100, decrease by 25 % you got 75, right? Now increase that by 25%, what you got now? eh? so 25% doesn't always equal 25% ?????

Don't bother correcting me here, it is a mind and semantics exercise and I know all the angles........
 



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