| This is a discussion on C-bet % question within the online poker forums, in the Cash Games section; I am hearing a lot of players say that when they cbet 1/2 pot with air, it only has to work 33% of the time ... |
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#1
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C-bet % question
I am hearing a lot of players say that when they cbet 1/2 pot with air, it only has to work 33% of the time to show a profit.
Why is this? When I look at the situation I think the 1/2 pot c bet has to work more than 50% of the time to show a profit. If the pot were 100 and I c-bet 50, I see it as I am paying 50 to win 100. If it works I get $100 (2x50) and if it fails, I lose 50. So where does the 33% come from? |
| Play Texas Hold'em Online Poker | C-bet % question | |
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#2
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My only guess would be that what their calculating as odds is that every time the C-bet 1/2 the pot they win doing so 1 out of every 3 times they attempt this move?
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#3
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Quote:
But their words are 'this only needs to work 33% of the time to show a profit' |
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#4
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If isolated, the 1/3 figure makes the move break even, but the cbet, used judiciously, will succeed more often than 1/3 of the time (and thus profitable). Used cavalierly, the cbet will not meet the break even criteria, as opponents have a way of noticing things like this, and will fight back. Of critical importance here is the ability to give up on a hand when faced with resistance.
Another factor, the occasional cbet against multiple villains (generally not recommended), improves the profitability. |
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#8
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Use your example, 1 in 3 times it works:
1. doesn't work -50 2. doesn't work -50-50=-100 3. does work -100+100 = 0 33% means you get 1:2 on your steal. If you bet pot it has to work 50% of the time assuming absolutely no equity. |
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#10
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re: C-bet % question poker
If any doubt try this
you got 100, decrease by 25 % you got 75, right? Now increase that by 25%, what you got now? eh? so 25% doesn't always equal 25% ????? ![]() ![]() ![]() ![]() Don't bother correcting me here, it is a mind and semantics exercise and I know all the angles........ |
